Advanced Grammar Quiz, Capítulo 1, pg 11

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Advanced Grammar Quiz (C1, pg 11)

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Question 1

The first words on this page are 'antes de venir a la tierra' and this phrase can be translated as 'before coming to earth'. Why do you think the infinitive 'venir' is used instead of the gerund 'viniendo' to mean 'coming'?

A	Because prepositions, including 'de', must be followed with an infinitive rather than a conjugated verb. Hint: ¡Correcto!
B	It wouldn't matter, either would be correct. Hint: No, prepositions, including 'de', must be followed with an infinitive rather than a conjugated verb.
C	Because Spanish present participles, such as 'coming' can not be used as nouns, instead the infinitive is used. Hint: While that is true, this is not the situation here instead the reason is that prepositions, including 'de', must be followed with an infinitive rather than a conjugated verb.

Question 2

How would you translate 'por eso' in the context of the second sentence?

A	therefore Hint: Well, that is one translation but in this case it probably sounds more natural to say 'that's why'.
B	for that Hint: Well, that is the literal translation but in this case it would probably sound more natural to say "that's why".
C	that's why Hint: Good choice, that seems to be a nice, natural translation.

Question 3

Why do you think that the first sentence uses 'vivía' and the second sentence uses 'vivió' although both are referring to the same time period when Jesus lived in heaven?

A	Because in the first one no beginning or end is mentioned so it's just generally referring to that time period but in the second the end is alluded to because it had to have finished before he came to earth. Hint: Well done, exactly right.
B	Because the imperfect tense in the first one refers to a completed event but in the second one the preterite tense allows the reader to see that time period as it was it developing. Hint: Good try but actually it's the other way around. In the first one no beginning or end is mentioned so it's just generally referring to that time period but in the second the end is alluded to because it had to have finished before he came to earth.
C	Because in the first one the imperfect tense is referring to a completed time period but in the second one the preterite tense is just referring to the time generally. Hint: Good try but actually it's the other way around. In the first one no beginning or end is mentioned so it's just generally referring to that time period but in the second the end is alluded to because it had to have finished before he came to earth.

Question 4

Why is 'había un buen hijo" a better translation of 'had been good son' than 'hubo sido un bueno hijo'?

A	Because 'había' is good for one off specific events'. Hint: No, actually the opposite is true. Había is for repeated actions or while hubo is good for one off specific events.
B	Because 'hubo' is good for repeated actions. Hint: No, actually the opposite is true. Había is for repeated actions or while hubo is good for one off specific events.
C	Because 'hubo' would signify that 'he had been a good son' but that at some stage he had stopped being a good son' Hint: ¡Exacto!

Question 5

In the fourth sentence we find another 'por lo tanto' what is the usual translation of this phrase?

A	therefore Hint: ¡Tienes toda la razon!
B	that's why Hint: No, although that is an option, the most common translation would be 'therefore'.
C	insofar as Hint: No, that would be 'si acaso'.

Question 6

Why does the text use "pudo enseñar a los seres humanos" instead of 'podía" enseñar a los seres humanos"?

A	Because we're not referring to a one off event, instead Jesus would have taught many things on many different occasions. Hint: That is all true, but those reasons actually sound like this phrase is a prime candidate for the imperfect tense 'podía' instead of the preterite 'pudo'.
B	Because it was a one off event. Hint: Not really, this phrase is referring to Jesus teaching many things on many different occasions.
C	Because instead of just meaning 'was able to', the verb poder in the preterite tense carries the meaning that someone was able to do something and also succeeded in doing it, even if talking about repeated actions. Hint: ¡Perfecto!

Question 7

Why doesn't the sentence 'si tú escuchas a tus padres' use 'escuches' (in the subjunctive mood)?

A	Because we're not declaring that the child is actually listening to his parents. Hint: That sounds like the reason why it should have used 'escuches' in the subjunctive mood, but we need to remember that 'si' can not be followed by the present subjunctive (unless it's a phrase that uses 'no saber si').
B	The indicative mood is used because 'si' can not be followed by the present subjunctive (unless it's a phrase that uses 'no saber si'). Hint: ¡Tienes toda la razon! You're exactly right!
C	The indicative mood is used because we are declaring that the child is actually listening to his parents. Hint: Not really, the word 'si' (if) shows that it's just a possibility. But the reason that the indicative mood is used is that 'si' can not be followed by the present subjunctive (unless it's a phrase that uses 'no saber si').

Question 8

Should the word 'una' appear before 'otra' in the phrase 'por otra razon' (for another reason)?

A	Yes, it should say 'por una otra razon' (for another reason) Hint: No, 'otra' by itself means 'another'.
B	It's optional, it could say 'otra' or 'una otra'. Hint: No, 'otra' by itself means 'another' putting 'una' before 'otra' would not be correct.
C	No, 'otra' by itself means 'another', there is no need to add 'una'. Hint: ¡Correcto!

Question 9

How would you translate the caption under the picture? ¿Por qué les gustaba a los niños estar con Jesus?

A	Why did Jesus like to be with the children? Hint: Not quite, it says 'why did the children like to be with children?'/
B	Why did the children and Jesus like to be together? Hint: Not quite, it says 'why did the children like to be with children?'/
C	Why did the children like to be with Jesus. Hint: ¡Exacto!

Question 10

When it says that 'Jesus quería ayudarlas a aprender de Dios' - what does the 'las' mean and why isn't it 'los'?

A	It means 'they' and it's 'las' because it refers to 'las personas'. Hint: Nearly, it does refer to 'las personas' but it actually means 'them'.
B	It means 'them' and it's 'las' because they were all women. Hint: No, it does mean 'them' but it is 'las' because it refers to 'las personas'.
C	It means 'them' and it's 'las' because it refers to 'las personas'. Hint: You've got it, well done!

Question 11

In the phrase 'but also the children' why does it say 'sino también a los niños' instead of 'pero también a los niños'?

A	Because 'sino' is the best word to contrast two words, phrases or sentences. Hint: Not really, 'pero' is fine for contrasting two words, phrases or sentences. The reason that 'sino' is used here is that it means “but” in the sense of “but rather” and is used after a negated item which is replaced by what follows.
B	Because 'sino' is the common conjunction that means 'but'. Hint: Not really, 'pero' is really the common conjunction that means 'but'. The reason is that sino means “but” in the sense of “but rather” and is used after a negated item which is replaced by what follows.
C	Because, although 'pero' and 'sino' can be translated as 'but', sino means “but” in the sense of “but rather” and is used after a negated item which is replaced by what follows. Hint: Yes, well done!

Question 12

How would you translate the word 'estos' in the sentence ... 'estos disfrutaban de estar con él'?

A	these ones Hint: Yes, that's a good translation. It's good to remember that the Spanish demonstratives (este, ese, aquel etc) can include the meaning of 'one' or 'ones' - 'this one', 'these ones' etc.
B	these Hint: Although that is an option, don't you think it sounds a little more natural to translate it as 'these ones'? It's good to remember that the Spanish demonstratives (este, ese, aquel etc) can include the meaning of 'one' or 'ones' - 'this one', 'these ones' etc.
C	those Hint: No, that would be esos.

Question 13

What is the meaning of 'los' in the phrase 'los escuchaba' and why is it 'los' instead of 'las'?

A	It means 'they' and it's 'los' because they were all male. Hint: No, it means 'them' and it's 'los' because it refers to 'los adultos' and 'los niños'.
B	It means 'them' and it's 'los' because it refers to 'los adultos' and 'los niños'. Hint: ¡Correcto!
C	It means 'them' and it's 'los' because they were all male. Hint: Well it does mean 'them' but it's 'los' because it refers to 'los adultos' and 'los niños'.

Question 14

Still looking at that phrase 'los escuchaba', if it means 'he listened to them' why is there no 'a' in there meaning 'to'?

A	Because the verb 'escuchar' means not just 'to listen' but 'to listen to'. Hint: ¡Exactamente!
B	Because 'los' means 'to them'. Hint: No, 'los' just means 'them', the reason is that the verb 'escuchar' means not just 'to listen' but 'to listen to'.
C	Maybe it's a typo and the 'a' should be there. Hint: No, there is a good reason,the reason is that the verb 'escuchar' means not just 'to listen' but 'to listen to'.

Question 15

Given the context, what do you think would be best translation for the words 'cierto día' in the last paragraph?

A	one day Hint: Yes in this case the best translation would probably be 'one day' although the literal translation would be '(a) certain day'.
B	certain day Hint: Well that is the literal translation but in this case the best translation would probably be 'one day'.
C	a true day Hint: No, although 'cierto' can mean 'true' that translation doesn't work in this case, the best translation would probably be 'one day' although the literal translation would be '(a) certain day'.

Question 16

What tense and mood is 'se marcharan' (in the last paragraph)?

A	The imperfect tense in the indicative mood because it would have taken the children a little while to leave. Hint: No, it is in the imperfect tense in the subjunctive mood because it doesn't declare what actually happened, only what the friends of Jesus said should happen.
B	The preterite tense in the indicative mood because it was a one off completed action in the past. Hint: No, it is in the imperfect tense in the subjunctive mood because it doesn't declare what actually happened, only what the friends of Jesus said should happen.
C	The imperfect tense in the subjunctive mood because it doesn't declare what actually happened, only what the friends of Jesus said should happen. Hint: ¡Perfecto!

Question 17

What verb is the word 'dejen' in 'dejen que los niñitos vengan a mí' and why is the subjunctive mood used?

A	It's from the verb 'deber' (meaning 'ought') and it's in the subjunctive because Jesus was saying what 'ought' to happen. Hint: No, i's from the verb 'dejar' (to let or allow) and it's in the subjunctive mood because Jesus was giving a command, as it were, to his friends
B	It's from the verb 'decir' (to say) and it's in the subjunctive because Jesus was saying what should to happen. Hint: It's from the verb 'dejar' (to let or allow) and it's in the subjunctive mood because Jesus was giving a command, as it were, to his friends.
C	It's from the verb 'dejar' (to let or allow) and it's in the subjunctive mood because Jesus was giving a command as it were. Hint: Tienes toda la razon.

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